Own Goals

[Houghton Bee]

now this is something that has puzzled me this season and last, take chelseas first goal yesterday, ballacks free kick hits post and rebounds in off the keeper who could do nothing to avoid the ball as he was in mid-dive. the goal has been, according to motd2, as an own goal. now to me that should be ballacks goal, an own goal has always been to my knowledge an instance where the defender or gk has "forced" the ball into the net, not unlucky deflections as now seems the case.


any views? no abuse for my poorly worded explanation of my thinking lol lol

 

[SmiffyBee]

I think the reasoning is clear.
If a shot is not going into the net, and is touched by a second player, to make it change direction and into the goal...it's that second player's goal.

Ballack's shot hit the post.

Harsh, but reasoned.

 

[Nada Bee]

yeah but if Howards back didnt get in the way, it would of come out again.... so i think it should be an OG personally.

 

[Wee Dave]

So what, theoretically, would happen if the referee deflected a wayward shot into the net by mistake? Would it be given? And who would get the credit?

 

[SmiffyBee]

So what, theoretically, would happen if the referee deflected a wayward shot into the net by mistake? Would it be given? And who would get the credit?

The referee, in theory, is not part of the game.
If a player strikes the ball and hits the ref, and it goes out of play, it is a throw in.
If a player strikes the ball and it hits the ref and goes in, its a goal, credited to the player.

In real terms, no referee worth any kind of merit would be anywhere near the penalty area, whilst an attack was on-going.
They are advised to position themselves away from any goal mouth action.

 

[Wee Dave]

no referee worth any kind of merit ...

Guess it'll be happening at GP soon then...

 

[Ronan]

But if the referee is not part of the game, then nor are the fans? Then why is an indirect freekick issued if a fan touches the ball while its in play, but not for the referee?

 

[hanworthbee]

I guess as soon as a fan enters the field of play the ref has to stop the game.

 

[Gee Bee]

I guess as soon as a fan enters the field of play the ref has to stop the game.

In which case he should re-start with a drop ball.

 

[Gee Bee]

But if the referee is not part of the game, then nor are the fans? Then why is an indirect freekick issued if a fan touches the ball while its in play, but not for the referee?

In what intnance have you seen an indirect free kick given when a ball hits a fan whilst in play?

 

[hanworthbee]

In which case he should re-start with a drop ball.

im not disagreeing with you, im sure theres a ref here who can clarify

 

[murphalot]

im not disagreeing with you, im sure theres a ref here who can clarify

whats the question and il see if i can?

 

[The H]

the referee is part of the game..... whoever said he wasnt??

The referee, in theory, is not part of the game.

of course the ref is part of the game...if he pops up with a hattrick, i'm sure he'll give it.

A fan isn't part of the game and the ref would stop play (andaward a drop-ball) As he's done at GP when the ball boy has picked up the ball before its gone out of play.

 

[murphalot]

the ref is part of the game as are corner flags and posts etc so if it hits any of these and goes in then it is a goal. The H is right if someone that is not involved in the game, like a fan, touches the ball play should be stopped and restarted with a drop ball.

 

[SmiffyBee]

the referee is part of the game..... whoever said he wasnt??



of course the ref is part of the game...if he pops up with a hattrick, i'm sure he'll give it.

A fan isn't part of the game and the ref would stop play (andaward a drop-ball) As he's done at GP when the ball boy has picked up the ball before its gone out of play.

I think if you took out the word "not", I would be more correct...